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I am a student at Northeastern University and I am doing a research paper on a particular rape issue. I was told that there is a law that states, if a woman is drunk and participates in sexual intercourse whether agreeing to it or not, it is considered rape. Is this true? And if it is, how can I prove to my teacher that this is really a law. When I told him of it, he acted like I was out of my mind. Hopefully, you can help me. Katie

Thanks for your note to FEMINIST.COM. I don't think that your assumption that if a woman is drunk and has sex--whether it is consensual or not-- is rape. However, if a woman is drunk and doesn't remember consenting and feels raped--than she can clearly press rape charges. Whether a woman (or man) is drunk or sober and has non-consensual sex--it is rape. You might want to contact the NOW Legal Defense and Education Fund for more information about rape laws. Their main offices is in Washington, DC--and they have resource guides on these type of cases. Also, there is a book by Robin Warshaw--I Never Called It Rape, which you may want to look at.

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